NCET 2026 Biology Mock Test - Set 1

🧬 NCET 2026 — Biology Mock Test | Set 1

Section: 304 — Biology, Biological Studies, Biotechnology & Biochemistry

Total Questions: 28 | Maximum Marks: 100 | Duration: 3 Hours

Pattern: Attempt any 25 questions out of 28 | +4 Marks Correct | −1 Mark Wrong

📋 Important Instructions

This test contains 28 questions in total
Attempt any 25 questions out of 28 (you may skip 3 questions)
Each question carries +4 marks for a correct answer
Each incorrect answer will deduct −1 mark
No marks are awarded or deducted for unattempted questions
Maximum score: 25 × 4 = 100 marks
Use the question navigation panel to jump between questions

Time Remaining: 03:00:00

Answered: 0/28

Question 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Which of the following statements about vegetative propagation in plants is/are correct?

(A) Vegetative propagation is always a form of asexual reproduction.
(B) Runners, rhizomes and bulbs are all vegetative propagules.
(C) Plants produced by vegetative propagation are genetically different from the parent plant.
(D) Vegetative propagation does not require fertilisation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) Only

(3) (B) and (C) Only

(4) (A) and (D) Only

Question 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Arrange the following events of double fertilisation in the correct sequence:

(A) Fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell (syngamy)
(B) Pollen tube enters the embryo sac through the micropyle
(C) Fusion of second male gamete with secondary nucleus (triple fusion)
(D) Release of male gametes from pollen tube

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) → (D) → (A) → (C)

(2) (A) → (B) → (C) → (D)

(3) (D) → (B) → (A) → (C)

(4) (B) → (A) → (D) → (C)

Question 3 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Structure)          List-II (Ploidy)
(A) Megaspore mother cell     (I) Triploid (3n)
(B) Endosperm                   (II) Haploid (n)
(C) Functional megaspore      (III) Diploid (2n)
(D) Zygote                        (IV) Diploid (2n)

Choose the correct answer:

(1) A-(III), B-(I), C-(II), D-(IV)

(2) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)

(3) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)

(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)

Question 4 Human Reproduction

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the male reproductive system?

(1) The testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum to maintain a temperature lower than body temperature.

(2) Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules and provide nourishment to germ cells.

(3) Leydig cells secrete testosterone and are located inside the seminiferous tubules.

(4) The epididymis is the site of sperm maturation and storage.

Question 5 Human Reproduction

The correct sequence of events during the menstrual cycle is:

(1) Follicular phase → Luteal phase → Ovulation → Menstruation

(2) Menstruation → Follicular phase → Ovulation → Luteal phase

(3) Ovulation → Follicular phase → Luteal phase → Menstruation

(4) Luteal phase → Ovulation → Follicular phase → Menstruation

Question 6 Reproductive Health

Identify the correct statements about Intrauterine Devices (IUDs):

(A) Copper-releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity.
(B) Hormone-releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(C) IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who wish to delay their first pregnancy.
(D) Saheli is a non-steroidal once-a-week oral contraceptive developed in India.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (A) and (B) Only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) Only

(3) (B) and (C) Only

(4) (A), (C) and (D) Only

Question 7 Principles of Inheritance

A true-breeding tall plant (TT) is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf plant (tt). The F₁ plants are self-pollinated. What will be the ratio of tall to dwarf plants in F₂ generation?

(1) 1 : 1

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 3 : 1

(4) 1 : 3

Question 8 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following is NOT true about transcription in prokaryotes?

(1) RNA polymerase has the ability to initiate transcription de novo.

(2) The sigma factor of RNA polymerase is responsible for recognition of the promoter region.

(3) Translation begins only after transcription is complete in prokaryotes.

(4) The RNA polymerase core enzyme can transcribe without the sigma factor once it detaches.

Question 9 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

In the lac operon of E. coli, which of the following correctly describes the role of the repressor protein?

(1) It binds to the operator region and prevents transcription in the absence of lactose.

(2) It binds to the promoter region and prevents RNA polymerase from binding.

(3) It directly degrades the mRNA of structural genes when lactose is absent.

(4) It acts as an inducer to switch on the structural genes when lactose is present.

Question 10 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Which of the following statements about the Human Genome Project (HGP) is/are correct?

(A) The human genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs.
(B) About 5% of the genome codes for proteins.
(C) Repeated sequences make up a large portion of the human genome.
(D) Chromosome 1 has the most number of genes and Y chromosome has the least.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (A) and (B) Only

(2) (A), (C) and (D) Only

(3) (B) and (D) Only

(4) (A), (B) and (C) Only

Question 11 Evolution

Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?

(1) The forelimbs of a whale, a bat and a human — all have similar bones but different functions.

(2) The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bird — similar function but different origin.

(3) The pectoral fins of a fish and the flippers of a dolphin — same ancestry.

(4) The leaves of Opuntia (cactus) modified as spines and those of peas modified as tendrils.

Question 12 Human Health and Disease

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Disease)                  List-II (Causative agent)
(A) Amoebiasis                     (I) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Ascariasis                      (II) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Malaria                         (III) Ascaris lumbricoides
(D) Elephantiasis                 (IV) Wuchereria bancrofti

Choose the correct answer:

(1) A-(I), B-(III), C-(II), D-(IV)

(2) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)

(3) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III)

(4) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)

Question 13 Human Health and Disease

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its drug category?

(1) Morphine — Opioid analgesic

(2) Cocaine — Stimulant (affects dopamine transport)

(3) LSD — Cannabinoid (derived from Cannabis sativa)

(4) Barbiturates — Sedative and hypnotic

Question 14 Microbes in Human Welfare

Which of the following statements about microbes used in industrial applications is/are correct?

(A) Acetobacter aceti is used in the production of acetic acid (vinegar).
(B) Clostridium butylicum is used for the production of lactic acid.
(C) Aspergillus niger is used to produce citric acid.
(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for the commercial production of ethanol.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) Only

(2) (A) and (B) Only

(3) (B) and (D) Only

(4) All of the above

Question 15 Microbes in Human Welfare

Which of the following is NOT true about Biogas production?

(1) Biogas is produced by the microbial activity of methanogens.

(2) Methanogens are found in the rumen of cattle and in sewage treatment.

(3) Biogas is composed mainly of methane (75%) along with CO₂ and H₂S.

(4) The slurry left after biogas extraction has no agricultural value.

Question 16 Biotechnology — Principles

Select the correct statement about restriction endonucleases:

(1) They cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences and always produce blunt ends.

(2) EcoRI cuts between G and AATTC sequences leaving 5' sticky ends.

(3) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at random positions throughout the sequence.

(4) All restriction enzymes produce sticky ends only.

Question 17 Biotechnology — Principles

Which of the following is an essential feature of a cloning vector?

(A) Origin of replication (ori)
(B) Selectable marker
(C) Cloning sites (restriction sites)
(D) High copy number to produce large quantities of recombinant DNA

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (A) and (B) Only

(2) (A), (B) and (C) Only

(3) (B) and (D) Only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) All

Question 18 Biotechnology — Applications

Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm. The Bt toxin produced by the plant acts by:

(1) Interfering with the insect's nervous system by blocking acetylcholine receptors.

(2) Creating pores in the midgut epithelium of the insect, causing cell swelling and death.

(3) Preventing moulting in the larval stage of the insect.

(4) Degrading the insect's chitin exoskeleton by chitinase activity.

Question 19 Biotechnology — Applications

RNA interference (RNAi) was used to develop nematode-resistant transgenic tobacco. Which organism was used as a source of specific dsRNA to silence the nematode genes?

(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(2) The nematode itself (Meloidogyne incognita)

(3) Bacillus thuringiensis

(4) Trichoderma harzianum

Question 20 Organisms and Populations

Which of the following population interactions is correctly matched?

(1) Mycorrhizae — Parasitism (fungus harms the plant root)

(2) Orchid on a mango tree — Commensalism (orchid benefits, mango unaffected)

(3) Barnacles on whale — Mutualism (both benefit)

(4) Cuckoo laying eggs in crow's nest — Amensalism

Question 21 Organisms and Populations

Which of the following correctly describes the logistic growth model of a population?

(1) The population grows at an ever-increasing rate until resources become unlimited.

(2) The population shows an S-shaped (sigmoid) curve approaching the carrying capacity (K).

(3) The population shows a J-shaped growth curve due to unlimited resources.

(4) The population growth rate (r) remains constant regardless of population density.

Question 22 Ecosystem

Identify the correct sequence of events in a hydrarch succession:

(A) Sedge meadow stage
(B) Submerged plant stage
(C) Phytoplankton stage
(D) Forest stage
(E) Rooted floating plant stage

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (C) → (B) → (E) → (A) → (D)

(2) (B) → (C) → (E) → (D) → (A)

(3) (C) → (E) → (B) → (A) → (D)

(4) (C) → (B) → (A) → (E) → (D)

Question 23 Ecosystem

Which of the following statements about ecosystem productivity is correct?

(1) Net Primary Productivity (NPP) = Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) + Respiration losses

(2) Net Primary Productivity (NPP) = Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) − Respiration losses

(3) Secondary Productivity is the rate of energy storage by the producers.

(4) The standing crop at a trophic level is directly equal to the productivity of that level.

Question 24 Biodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following correctly explains the significance of biodiversity hotspots?

(1) Hotspots are areas with high biodiversity and very low threats to their existing species.

(2) Hotspots are regions with high species richness and endemism that have already lost most of their original habitat.

(3) Hotspots are ocean regions with the highest marine biodiversity and coral coverage.

(4) India has no identified biodiversity hotspot regions.

Question 25 Biodiversity and Conservation

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Conservation strategy)       List-II (Example)
(A) In-situ conservation                 (I) Seed banks
(B) Ex-situ conservation                (II) National Parks
(C) Sacred groves                       (III) Traditional in-situ conservation
(D) Cryopreservation                   (IV) Preserving gametes at low temperatures

Choose the correct answer:

(1) A-(II), B-(I), C-(III), D-(IV)

(2) A-(I), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(III)

(3) A-(III), B-(II), C-(I), D-(IV)

(4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III)

Question 26 Environmental Issues

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the depletion of the ozone layer?

(1) Increased incidence of skin cancer (melanoma) in humans

(2) Damage to DNA and mutation in organisms exposed to increased UV-B radiation

(3) Destruction of coral reef ecosystems due to increased absorption of UV radiation

(4) Increased rate of global warming due to more infrared radiation being trapped

Question 27 Environmental Issues

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is used as a measure of water pollution. Which of the following is correct?

(1) High BOD indicates clean water with abundant dissolved oxygen.

(2) BOD measures the amount of oxygen consumed by microorganisms decomposing organic matter in water.

(3) BOD is not related to the organic load of water — it only measures dissolved salts.

(4) Eutrophication leads to low BOD due to excess algal growth.

Question 28 Biodiversity and Conservation

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding the IUCN Red List categories?

(1) Vulnerable — A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future

(2) Endangered — A taxon likely to move into the Critically Endangered category if causal factors continue

(3) Extinct in the Wild — A taxon known only from captivity/cultivation; no longer in its natural habitat

(4) Data Deficient — A taxon that cannot become extinct because its data are not studied

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🧬 NCET 2026 — Biology Mock Test | Set 1

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🧬 NCET 2026 — Biology Mock Test | Set 1

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